1. Right lower lobe collapse is characterised by:
a) increased A-a difference
b) tachypnoea
c) increased PCO2
d) decreased arterial pH
e) an area of stony dullness
2. A haemoglobin of 8 g/dl and a reticulocyte count of 10% may occur in:
a) aplastic anaemia
b) haemolytic anaemia
c) iron deficiency anaemia
d) pernicious anaemia
e) acute leukaemia
3. Hypokalaemia may occur with:
a) spironolactone treatment
b) IV digoxin
c) compound sodium lactate infusion
d) metabolic acidosis
e) intermittent positive pressure ventilation with hypocapnia
4. In gout:
a) an acute attack may be precipitated by surgery
b) erythrocyte sedimentation rate is normal in an acute attack
c) urate deposits occur in the kidney
d) cystic lesions on X-rays are urate-filled deposits
e) family history occurs in less than 25% of patients with the primary variety
5. Complications of propanolol treatment are:
a) congestive cardiac failure
b) bronchospasm
c) retinal degeneration
d) hyperglycaemia
e) tachycardia
6. Signs of digoxin toxicity may occur with:
a) hyperkalaemia
b) hypercalcaemia
c) hypomagnesaemia
d) acute respiratory alkalosis
e) mannitol infusion
7. In the cardiovascular system:
a) sudden atrial fibrillation in a patient with mitral stenosis may result in pulmonary oedema
b) dilatation of the right lower lobe veins is a reliable sign of pulmonary hypertension
c) tricuspid regurgitation is commonly of rheumatic origin
d) cachexia is a common feature of cardiac failure
e) cardiac failure due to aortic stenosis maybe irreversible due to myocardial fibrosis
8. Preoperative pacing is required in:
a) Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome
b) first-degree heart block
c) type two second degree heart block
d) third-degree heart block
e) cardiogenic shock with sinus rhythm
9. ECG interference:
a) is reduced by screening of the leads
b) is reduced by main frequency of 100 Hz
c) is reduced by differential amplifiers
d) is reduced by decreased skin resistance
e) is reduced by the use of filters
10. Isolated pulmonary stenosis is associated with:
a) arterial cyanosis
b) parasternal leave
c) increased “A” wave in the jugular venous pressure
d) a loud pulmonary segment of the second heart sound
e) a systolic murmur and thrill at the left upper sternal edge
11. A full nitrous oxide cyclinder:
a) has a pressure of 5100 kPa at 200 degrees C
b) has a filling ratio of 0.67
c) should be inverted six times before connection to an anaesthetic machine
d) gives a constant pressure during usage
e) has its contents estimated by weight
12. In early sepsis syndrome:
a) cardiac output is normal
b) a decreased white cell count is a poor prognostic sign
c) adrenocorticotrophic hormone levels are low
d) Insulin is raised
e) PaO2 is lowered
13. Features of disseminated intravascular coagulation include:
a) a lowered fibrinogen level
b) a normal prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time
c) heparin is a reasonable treatment following placental abruption
d) it may occur secondary to malaria
e) it may have a compensated phase with no bleeding
14. The following are features of barbiturate overdosage:
a) bullous skin reaction
b) myocardial depression
c) PaCO2 greater than kPa breathing spontaneously
d) aspiration of gastric contents
e) hypothermia
15. An 8-year-old child is rescued 20 minutes after drowning and has a core
temperature of 30 degrees C and fixed dilated pupils. Further appropriate
treatment includes:
a) barbiturate infusion
b) rapid rewarming
c) steroid therapy
d) hypoventilation
e) cardiac massage
16. The saturated vapour pressure of water:
a) is 0 at 273 K
b) is dependent on altitude
c) is barometric pressure when at boiling point
d) at 37 degrees C is the same as in blood
17. Supraclavicular block with respect to axillary block:
a) is more likely to give blockade of the lateral aspect of the forearm
b) gives better blockade of the shoulder
c) has a higher incidence of intravascular injection
d) gives a better block of muscles of the hand
e) has a higher incidence of pneumorthorax
18. The following are good indicators of the severity of an acute severe asthma attack:
a) a low PaO2
b) a high PaO2
c) scattered rales and crackles
d) pyrexia
e) an increased pulsus paradoxus
19. Characteristics of chronic obstructive airways disease are:
a) a productive cough
b) right-sided heart failure is an early feature
c) abnormal arterial blood gases occur early
d) breathlessness is an early feature
20. Legionnaires' disease is associated with:
a) pneumonia
b) encephalopathy
c) a relative neutropenia
d) liver disease
e) conjunctivitis
21. Immediate signs of a massive pulmonary embolus include:
a) ischaemic cardiac pain
b) pleural effusion
c) lower lobe pulmonary venous congestion
d) peripheral cyanosis
e) haemoptysis
22. Recognised features of motor neurone disease are:
a) dysphagia
b) dysarthria
c) urinary retention
d) fasciculation
e) dementia
23. In Eisenmenger’s syndrome:
a) hypovolaemia improves R to L shunt
b) hypoxia decreases R to L shunt
c) a ventricular septal defect is always present
d) a decrease in systemic vascular resistance reduces the R to L shunt
e) pulmonary hypertension is always present
24. Ways of assessing recovery used are:
a) Maddox Wing test
b) p deletion test
c) Romberg test
d) measurement of drug levels in blood
e) Stewart scoring system
25. The following effects can result from a stellate ganglion block:
a) miosis
b) exophthalmus
c) stuffy nose
d) dilatation of the cochlear artery
e) recurrent laryngeal nerve block
26. The following can result in pupillary dilatation:
a) trimetaphan
b) nitroprusside
c) stellate ganglion block
d) 0.6 mg of atropine IV
e) ecothiopate
27. A 3 in 1 block blocks:
a) ilioinguinal nerve
b) femoral nerve
c) genitofemoral nerve
d) obturator nerve
e) lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
28. Amniotic fluid embolism can cause:
a) bronchospasm
b) bleeding
c) peripheral cyanosis
d) pulmonary hypertension
e) hypertension
29. The birth canal is innervated by:
a) pudendal nerve
b) femoral nerve
c) obturator nerve
d) ilioinguinal nerve
e) genitofemoral nerve
30. A patient with infective endocarditis suddenly becomes dyspnoeic, with a blood pressure of 130/50 mmHg. The venous pressure is raised and systolic and diastolic murmurs become more pronounced. Which of the following may have occurred:
a) rupture of an aortic cusp
b) sudden occurrence of a ventricular septal defect
c) inferior myocardial infarct
d) late reaction to the antibiotics
e) pulmonary embolism
31. Concerning hip arthroplasty:
a) methyl-methacrylate is a cardiac inotrope
b) hypoxia may be caused by marrow embolisation
c) regional techniques give rise to a greater overall survival rate
d) subcutaneous heparin will completely prevent deep vein thrombosis
e) hypocapnia produced intermittent positive pressure ventilation is beneficial to the patients
32. Concerning propofol:
a) it has no active metabolites
b) it can cause convulsions
c) it causes less nausea than thiopentone
d) it causes pain on injection more often than midazolam
e) it can cause metabolic alkalosis
33. Concerning alfentanyl:
a) it has a higher volume of distribution than fentanyl
b) it has a longer elimination half life than fentanyl
c) it is more potent than sufentanil
d) it is more protein bound than fentanyl
e) it can cause bradycardia
34. Concerning the minimum alveolar concentration of isoflurane:
a) it decreases with age
b) it is decreased with acute alcohol intake
c) it is lower in men than in women
d) it is higher in neonates compared with a two year old
e) it is decreased in pregnancy
35. Causes of prolonged postoperative unconsciousness:
a) acromegaly
b) an intracerebral event during the operation
c) myxoedema
d) prolonged action of muscle relaxants
e) hypoventilatoin
36. Concerning postoperative nausea and vomiting:
a) it is more common in women than in men
b) the incidence is 80% with general anaesthesia
c) it is more common with thiopentone that with propofol
d) butyrophenones can decrease the incidence
e) it is more common with ear surgery
37. Concerning day case surgery:
a) only ASA grade one patients are suitable
b) the operation should be done in such a way that no postoperative opioids are needed
c) the patient should be accompanied home with an adult
d) a laparoscopic procedure is not suitable
e) intubation is not appropriate
38. Agents used to decrease the pressure response to intubation include:
a) ACE inhibitors
b) calcium antagonists
c) thiopentone
d) beta-blockers
e) fentanyl
39. The occurence of bronchospasm at the end of an operation to repair an umbilical hernia in an asthmatic child can be caused by:
a) light anaesthesia
b) irritation of a tracheal tube
c) morphine in the premedication
d) isoflurane
e) reversal by neostigmine
40. During one-lung anaesthesia, the PaO2 is influenced by:
a) the amount of blood flow in the upper lung
b) the cardiac output
c) the mixed venous oxygen concentration
d) the haematocrit
e) the FIO2
41. In patients with pacemakers:
a) diathermy use should be avoided
b) hypovolaemia is poorly tolerated
c) electrolytes should be “normalised” prior to surgery
d) suxamethonium should be avoided
e) use of volatile agents can cause deterioration of function
42. Hyponatraemia may cause the following:
a) confusion
b) hypertension
c) convulsions
d) coma
e) tachycardia
43. A complete block of the ulnar nerve at the elbow will cause:
a) numbness on the ulnar side of the forearm
b) paralysis of the hypothenar muscles
c) paralysis of all thenar muscles
d) sensory loss over the little finger
e) sensory loss over the lateral side of the ring finger
44. Positive end-expiratory pressure can cause:
a) sodium retention
b) decreased cardiac output
c) increased residual volume
d) decreased functional residual capacity
e) decreased central venous pressure
45. The following features are essential to diagnose malignant hyperthermia:
a) muscle rigidity
b) hypercapnia
c) renal failure
d) body temperature greater than 38 degrees C
e) family history
46. Trigeminal nerve block is associated with anaesthesia of:
a) lower lip
b) angle of the mandible
c) soft palate
d) tip of the nose
47. Hypokalaemia can be caused by:
a) Addison’s disease
b) major burns
c) alkalosis
d) triamterene therapy
e) diarrhoea
48. Gram-negative septicaemic shock is associated with:
a) urine output (0.5 ml/kg/h)
b) disseminated intravascular coagulation
c) hypotension unresponsive to fluid loading
d) high fever
e) diminished cardiac output
49. Laryngeal motor innervation is from the following:
a) glossopharyngeal nerve
b) internal laryngeal nerve
c) recurrent laryngeal nerve
d) hypoglossal nerve
e) superior laryngeal nerve
50. Uveitis is a feature of:
a) ulcerative colitis
b) rheumatoid arthritis
c) Crohn’s disease
d) systemic lupus erythematosus
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ArticleDate:20040629
SiteSection: Article
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