1. Regarding the Bain circuit:
a) it is suitable for small children
b) it can act as a Mapleson C circuit
c) inspiratory flow occurs through the outer tubing
d) a disconnection at the machine causes increased dead space
2. Regarding the Bain coaxial circuit:
a) it may function as a Mapleson C
b) it requires FGF=MV to prevent rebreathing in spontaneous respiration
c) it can be used in small children
d) dead space increases if the inner tube becomes detached at the machine end
e) FGF occurs through the outer tube
3. Regarding the Manley ventilator:
a) it is a minute volume divider
b) it is a pressure generator
c) it is time cycled
d) it is suitable for ventilating asthmatics
e) it leads to rotameter inaccuracy
4. The following tubes used in pulmonary surgery have a carinal hook:
a) Carlens
b) Gordon Green
c) McIntosh-Leatherdale
d) Bryce-Smith
e) Robertshaw
f) White
5. A stellate ganglion block causes:
a) pupil dilation
b) enopthalmos
c) anaesthesia of the superglottic part of the larynx
d) increased cerebral blood flow
6. A maxillary nerve block in the pterygopalatine fossa gives anaesthesia of:
a) upper molars
b) upper incisors
c) soft palate
d) anterior 2/3 of tongue
e) anterior part of nasal septum
7. Supraclavicular brachial plexus block differs from auxiliary block in that:
a) there is a greater risk of intravascular injection
b) analgesia of the shoulder is poor
c) it is more likely to give failure to block the interosseous nerves
d) it is less likely to give analgesia to the lateral forearm
e) there is an increased incidence of pneumothorax
f) it is less likely to give analgesia to the under side of the forearm
8. Intercostal block of one rib at the posterior angle causes:
a) somatic analgesia throughout the dermatome
b) visceral analgesia
c) low blood pressure because of preganglionic sympathetic block
d) increased blood levels of local anaesthetic
e) vasoconstriction
9. Hypotension during spinal anaesthesia may be due to:
a) preganglionic autonomic blockade
b) venoconstriction
c) block of the dorsal roots
d) ischaemia of the vasomotor centre
e) block of nerves to the adrenal medulla
10. The volume displacement of an electromaster:
a) indicates the amount of liquid needed to fill it
b) depends on the volume of the chamber
c) depends on the stiffness of the diaphragm
d) depends on the frequency response
11. Halothane concentrations can be measured by:
a) ultraviolet absorption
b) infrared absorption
c) a refractometer
d) changes in the elasticity of silicone rubber
12. Paramagnetism is used in:
a) O2 analysis
b) CO2 analysis
c) halothane vapour analysis
13. Radiation is the emission of:
a) beta particles
b) alpha particles
c) neutrons
d) rays
e) any wave form
14. Regarding gas chromatography:
a) it uses carrier gas
b) it uses electron deflection
c) it uses the Venturi principle
d) it uses haemodilution
e) it uses transillumination
f) a flame ionisation detector, katharometer, electron capture detector are required
15. Pressure gauges:
a) work on the Bourdon principle
b) can be used to regulate gas flow
c) can convert gas at a high pressure into gas at a low pressure
d) form part of a flow meter
16. Success of cricoid pressure in preventing aspiration depends on:
a) absence of a nasogastric tube
b) an intact cricoid cartilage
c) the oesophagus being pressed onto the vertebral body
d) extension of the neck
e) preoxygenation for 5 minutes
17. After massive inhalation of gastric acid, one would expect the following:
a) lung abscesses
b) severe hypercapnoea
c) bacteraemia
d) hypovolaemia
e) destruction of surfactant
18. In prolonged operations, core temperature is accurately monitored at:
a) the tympanic membrane
b) the lower third of the oesophagus
c) the muscle in the thigh
d) the nasopharynx
e) the rectum
19. The following may contribute to the development of a postoperative cauda equina syndrome:
a) age
b) the use of adrenalin in epidurals
c) Trendelenburg position
d) spinal barbotage
20. During anaesthesia, a patient with Parkinson’s disease on levodopa should not receive:
a) enflurane
b) fentanyl
c) morphine
d) droperidol
e) nitrous oxide
21. In the foetal transfer of drugs given by the epidural route:
a) the placenta is an effective barrier
b) foetal bradycardia may occur with local analgesics
c) highly protein-bound drugs are transferred less
d) amide-linked local analgesics should be avoided
22. For Caesarean section under epidural anaesthesia:
a) never give more than 20 ml of 0.5% bupivacaine
b) the block must extend from T5 to S1
c) syntocinon, rather than ergometrine, must be given
d) a paracervical block must also be performed
e) it is necessary to preload with 500 ml Hartmann’s solution
23. Features of amniotic fluid embolus include:
a) convulsions
b) cardiovascular collapse
c) bronchospasm
d) abnormal bleeding
e) pulmonary hypertension
24. Block of the trigeminal ganglion is associated with anaesthesia of:
a) alar nasi
b) lower lip
c) angle of mandible
d) soft palate
e) eardrum
25. If 50% nitrous oxide is inhaled for 3 days:
a) the lymphocyte count falls
b) methionine synthetase activity is reduced
c) megaloblastic bone marrow changes occur
d) vitamin B12 deficiency anaemia develops
e) peripheral neuropathy develops
26. Helium:
a) is less viscous than O2
b) is in liquid form in brown cylinders
c) inhalation causes voice changes
d) is used to decrease the work of breathing in bronchospasm
e) supports combustion
27. Methohexitone:
a) has a pH less than 8 in a 1% solution
b) is a methylated thiobarbiturate
c) has a longer duration of action than thiopentone
d) does not cause pain on injection
e) is associated with fewer excitatory phenomena than thiopentone
28. Isoflurane:
a) has a similar boiling point to enflurane
b) has a similar saturated vapour pressure to halothane
c) has a lower blood/gas coefficient than halothane
d) is extensively metabolised
e) has a minimum alveolar concentration of 1.68
29. Nitroprusside reduces blood pressure by:
a) acting on alpha-receptors
b) reducing the cardiac output
c) causing a bradycardia
d) producing cyanide ions
e) a direct action on blood vessels
30. The following are chiefly eliminated by the kidney:
a) d-tubocurarine
b) suxamethonium
c) dopamine
d) gallamine
e) digoxin
31. Edrophonium has the following clinical uses:
a) as a test for myasthenia gravis
b) for the reversal of neuromuscular blockade
c) as a centrally acting respiratory stimulant
d) for the relief of urinary retention
e) for the treatment of myotonia congenita
32. An untoward reaction to the following may occur in a patient on monoamine oxidase inhibitors:
a) adrenaline
b) thiopentone
c) diazepam
d) tricyclic antidepressants
e) amphetamine
33. A 60-year-old man develops painless jaundice, pale stools and dark urine; which of the following are true:
a) this is compatible with a raised alkaline phosphatase
b) the urinary urobilinogen will be raised
c) an oral cholecystogram will be useful
d) the absence of pain excludes malignancy
e) itching may be present
34. A low serum potassium is associated with:
a) Cushing’s disease
b) hyperventilation
c) carbenoxolone therapy
d) triamterene therapy
e) metabolic alkalosis
35. Hypokalaemia requiring treatment is found in the following situations:
a) following cardiac bypass (open heart surgery)
b) during treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis
c) after major burns
d) after giving depolarising relaxants
36. The following are causes of a metabolic acidosis:
a) uretero-colic fistula
b) vomiting
c) diarrhoea
d) CO2 retention
37. Hypoalbuminaemia:
a) may lead to hypocalcaemia
b) is a manifestation of hypopituitarism
c) can cause tetany
d) can be a feature of carcinoma of the sigmoid colon
e) may develop in hepatic cirrhosis
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ArticleDate:20060402
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