1. Dopamine:
a) may produce ventricular arrhythmias
b) increases mesenteric blood flow at high doses
c) crosses the blood/brain barrier
d) is synthesised from L-dopa
e) is inactivated in alkaline solution
2. The following increase the amount of calcium in cardiac muscle:
a) halothane
b) adrenaline
c) diltiazem
d) nifedipine
e) trimetaphan
3. The following can be used safely in a patient on a monoamine oxidase inhibitor:
a) morphine
b) pethidine
c) norepinephrine
d) amphetamine
e) epinephrine
4. Hyoscine hydrobromide causes:
a) antiemesis
b) somnolence
c) pupillary dilatation
d) tachycardia
e) extrapyramidal symptoms
5. Clonidine:
a) is an alpha-2 receptor agonist
b) is a dopamine antagonist
c) causes tachycardia
d) inhibits salivation
e) reduces the minimum alveolar concentration of halothane
6. Hydralazine:
a) is metabolised by acetylation
b) is destroyed by plasma cholinesterase
c) can cause a lupus-like syndrome
d) stimulates the baroreceptor reflex
e) is contraindicated in pregnancy
7. The following are prodrugs:
a) suxamethonium
b) diamorphine
c) captopril
d) paracetamol
e) enalapril
8. The following drugs penetrate the blood/brain barrier:
a) physostigmine
b) dopamine
c) propranolol
d) Glycopyrrolate
e) norepinephrine
9. Naloxone:
a) is an agonist at K receptors
b) is an antagonist at mu receptors
c) reverses ventilatory depression due to morphine
d) may precipitate opiate withdrawal symptoms
e) may cause pulmonary oedema
10. The following are precursors of epinephrine:
a) tyrosine
b) phenylalanine
c) dopamine
d) isoprenaline
e) norepinephrine
11. The following affect gastric emptying:
a) diamorphine
b) diazepam
c) metoclopramide
d) cisapride
e) omeprazole
12. Chlorpromazine:
a) can cause dystonic reactions
b) antagonises apomorphine-induced vomiting
c) is a dopamine antagonist at the chemoreceptor trigger zone
d) is a weak alpha adrenergic agonist
e) undergoes extensive first pass metabolism
13. Alfentanil:
a) is less lipid soluble than fentanyl
b) relaxes the sphincter of Oddi
c) has active metabolites
d) has a large volume of distribution
e) causes analgesia without sedation
14. Folic acid metabolism is impaired by:
a) nitrous oxide
b) sodium nitroprusside
c) sulphonamides
d) penicillin
e) trimethoprim
15. Significant agonist activity at opioid receptors occurs with:
a) clonidine
b) pentazocine
c) buprenorphine
d) ketamine
e) naloxone
16. Drug clearance by the body:
a) only refers to elimination by the kidney
b) refers to the volume of blood cleared of the drug in unit time
c) cannot exceed the glomerular filtration rate
d) may be influenced by renal tubular secretion
e) is the same as creatinine clearance
17. Dopexamine:
a) causes arterial vasoconstriction
b) is an agonist at dopaminergic D1 and D2 receptors
(c) increases the force of myocardial contraction
(d) increases renal blood flow
(e) causes arrhythmias
18. Sodium valproate:
a) is effective in grand mal epilepsy
b) is effective in petit mal epilepsy
c) is safe in patients with liver disease
d) should not be given to children
e) increases brain concentrations of gamma-amino butyric acid (GABA)
19. The Chi-squared test:
a) is used to compare the frequencies of occurrence
b) requires the standard error of the mean to be calculated
c) does not require a knowledge of the number of degrees of freedom
d) should not be used for data with small groups
e) does not involve the null hypothesis
20. A placebo effect:
a) may occur in either treatment or control groups
b) occurs only in mentally ill patients
c) is likely to occur repeatedly in placebo reactors
d) can occur in up to 35% of patients
e) is not seen in double-blind trials
21. In calculating the shunt fraction, the following need to be measured or estimated:
a) mixed venous oxygen content
b) pulmonary end-capillary oxygen content
c) arterial oxygen content
d) alveolar partial pressure of oxygen
e) haemoglobin concentration
22. Pulse pressure increases with an increase in:
a) stroke volume
b) left ventricular end-diastolic volume
c) arterial partial pressure of oxygen
d) systemic vascular resistance
e) blood viscosity
23. Acute untreated haemorrhagic shock in a patient will lead to:
a) an increase in physiological dead-space
b) an increase in the arterio-venous PCO2 difference
c) a fall in the pulmonary vascular volume
d) an increase in antidiuretic hormone secretion
e) an increase in plasma bicarbonate concentration
24. An increase in aldosterone secretion follows:
a) a sodium chloride load
b) a rise in blood volume
c) an increase in oral potassium absorption
d) trauma
e) an increase in production of angiotensin II
25. Stimulation of alpha adrenergic receptors will cause:
a) vasoconstriction of the coronary arteries
b) increased tone in the bladder neck muscle
c) increased platelet aggregation
d) lipolysis
e) bronchodilation
26. In the normal adult heart:
a) mitral valve closure occurs before tricuspid valve closure
b) pulmonary valve closure occurs before aortic valve closure
c) there is isometric contraction of the left ventricle after the aortic valve opens
d) atrial contraction is of more importance to ventricular filling if the heart rate increases
e) the aortic valve cusps are immobile during ventricular filling
27. Resistance to laminar flow in a vessel is:
a) proportional to wall thickness
b) inversely proportional to the fourth power of the radius
c) proportional to length
d) independent of haematocrit
e) proportional to the pressure drop
28. Autoregulatory mechanisms used in hypovolaemia include:
a) an increase in precapillary sphincter tone
b) an increase in capillary hydrostatic pressure
c) a decrease in baroreceptor activity
d) stimulation of the juxtaglomerular apparatus
e) an increase in angiotensin II
29. Myocardial contractility is increased by:
a) catecholamines
b) an increase in heart rate
c) an increase in fibre length
d) an increase in parasympathetic nervous system activity
e) calcium ions
30. The carotid sinuses:
a) have stretch receptors in their walls
b) give afferent impulses via the glossopharyngeal nerve
c) stimulate the respiratory centre
d) contain chemoreceptors
e) stimulate the vasomotor centre
31. The following cause a decrease in the arterial partial pressure of oxygen:
a) anaemia
b) carbon monoxide
c) hyperventilation
d) a rise in physiological dead-space
e) old age
32. Iron absorption is dependent on:
a) total body vitamin C
b) acid in the stomach
c) an intact colonic mucosa
d) total body iron
e) erythropoietin levels in the blood
33. If a normal person hyperventilates for 2 hours to an arterial PCO2 of 4 kPa:
a) the cerebral blood flow decreases
b) the standard bicarbonate decreases
c) the haemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve shifts to the left
d) the ionised calcium concentration decreases
e) the plasma bicarbonate increases
34. Hypoglycaemia may result from:
a) excessive insulin secretion
b) glucagon secretion
c) hypothermia
35. Ingested lipid:
a) is important in prostaglandin synthesis
b) increases in the faeces with a decrease in bile secretion
c) is absorbed via the intestinal lymphatics
d) is mainly in the form of triglycerides
e) can be used as a source of ATP production
36. The following may be found in normal adult venous blood:
a) 3% carboxyhaemoglobin
b) 5% methaemoglobin
c) 70% oxyhaemoglobin
d) 2% free haemoglobin
e) 2% haemoglobin F
37. In normal human lungs:
a) a low PO2 produces pulmonary vasodilatation
b) beta-2 agonists cause bronchoconstriction
c) pulmonary vascular resistance is increased by serotonin
d) pulmonary vascular resistance is decreased by histamine
e) pulmonary vascular resistance is decreased by norepinephrine
38. The normal response to surgery includes:
a) a decrease in urine volume
b) a decrease in the urinary excretion of sodium
c) a decrease in plasma cortisol level
d) an increase in the urinary excretion of nitrogen
e) an increase in the urinary excretion of potassium
39. Capillary permeability is increased by:
a) bradykinin
b) epinephrine
c) calcium
d) vasopressin
e) histamine
40. Expected changes in a patient with a phaeochromocytoma include:
a) a decreased haematocrit
b) a decreased total blood volume
c) a decreased serum sodium concentration
d) an abnormal glucose tolerance test
e) a reduced metabolic rate
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ArticleDate:20040715
SiteSection: Article
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