1. Donor blood in the UK is routinely screened for evidence of infection by:
a) Cytomegalovirus
b) HIV
c) Hepatitis A
d) Hepatitis B
e) Hepatitis C
2. Peripheral nerve injury is a recognised complication of a:
a) fracture of the upper fibula
b) fracture of both forearm bones
c) dislocated shoulder
d) tibial fracture
e) fracture shaft of humerus
3. Etomidate:
a) is an imidazole derivative
b) contains an ester group
c) causes more postoperative nausea and vomiting than propofol
d) is associated with adrenal medullary suppression
e) has a low incidence of allergy
4. The pain of angina typically:
a) is stabbing in nature
b) is aggravated by hot weather conditions
c) occurs mainly on the left side of the chest
d) is relieved by rest within 2 or 3 seconds of stopping exercise
e) is associated with nausea
5. The following drugs may be used effectively via a tracheal tube:
a) atropine
b) sodium bicarbonate
c) adrenaline
d) lidocaine
e) calcium carbonate
6. Postoperative jaundice may occur:
a) as a consequence of biliary surgery
b) following premedication with papaveretum
c) after perioperative blood transfusion
d) following the use of nitrous oxide for a prolonged surgical procedure
e) due to incidental viral hepatitis
7. In the Venturi oxygen mask:
a) the delivered oxygen concentration falls when the flow is decreased from 5 to 2 L/min
b) rebreathing is likely
c) total flow should exceed 20 L/min
d) increasing the diameter of the constriction increases the oxygen concentration
e) occluding the holes in the side of the mask decreases the oxygen concentration
8. Features of depolarising block include:
a) fasciculations
b) long duration of action
c) fade
d) antagonism by anticholinesterases
e) a rise in intraocular pressure
9. Medicolegally:
a) an 18 year old can give consent for his/her own surgery
b) the Sister in charge of theatre must check the patient’s identification
c) the anaesthetist is not responsible for checking the side of the operation
d) a signed consent form is necessary before surgery
e) a complication occurring with an incidence of at least 1% should be explained to a patient preoperatively
10. A canister of soda-lime:
a) contains mostly calcium carbonate
b) requires water for the absorption process
c) contains 50% by weight of sodium hydroxide
d) will absorb nitrous oxide
e) when packed will be 50% filled with granules
11. In a patient with rheumatoid arthritis, expected problems include:
a) cardiac failure
b) anaemia
c) difficulty with intubation
d) poor venous access
e) hypotension
12. An elective operation should be postponed if the patient has:
a) a haemoglobin concentration of 10.8 g/dl
b) acute intermittent porphyria
c) a white cell count of 8 x 109/L
d) unexpected glycosuria
e) a potassium concentration of 5.0 mmol/L
13. Gallstones are associated with:
a) intestinal obstruction
b) peritonitis
c) pancreatitis
d) carcinoma of the gall bladder
e) cholangitis
14. Cardiac output:
a) varies with oxygen consumption
b) increases with a rise in left ventricular end-diastolic volume
c) increases with a rise in afterload
d) increases with a rise in myocardial contractility
e) can be estimated with echocardiography
15. Induction with ketamine is contraindicated:
a) in an asthmatic patient
b) for caesarean section
c) in a patient with facial burns
d) in a hypertensive patient
e) in a shocked patient
16. The oesophagus:
a) lies in the anterior mediastinum
b) is lined by columnar epithelium
c) begins at the level of C6
d) extends to approximately 20 cm from the teeth
e) receives its motor innervation from the vagus
17. The following drugs can be used to treat bronchospasm occurring during anaesthesia:
a) aminophylline
b) halothane
c) salbutamol
d) sodium dicromoglycate
e) propranolol
18. The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood:
a) rises during sleep
b) rises when acclimatised at an altitude of 5000 metres
c) is halved when the minute ventilation is doubled (with constant production of CO2)
d) differs from that of mixed venous blood by about 0.8 kPa (6 mmHg)
e) normally rises at about 0.8 kPa (6 mmHg) per minute during apnoea
19. In the treatment of established malignant hyperthermia, the following are recognised as part of the treatment:
a) chlorpromazine
b) EDTA sodium
c) sodium bicarbonate
d) magnesium sulphate
e) glucose and insulin
20. The following are constituents of raw opium:
a) heroin
b) methadone
c) morphine
d) papaverine
e) codeine
21. The following are recognised features of Fallot’s tetralogy:
a) squatting
b) pulmonary oligaemia
c) cyanosis occurring only with exercise
d) a loud systolic murmur due to a ventricular septal defect
e) syncope
22. The risk of passive regurgitation can be increased by:
a) the presence of a nasogastric tube
b) neostigmine
c) metoclopramide
d) a non-depolarising muscle relaxant
e) placing a patient in the lithotomy position
23. Regarding the innervation of the eye:
a) the sensory supply is via the facial nerve
b) the motor supply to orbicularis oculi is via the oculomotor nerve
c) the sympathetic supply is via the superior cervical ganglion
d) the ciliary ganglion lies within the extraocular muscle cone
e) parasympathetic stimulation produces mydriasis
24. The following are produced in the anterior pituitary:
a) somatotrophin
b) oxytocin
c) aldosterone
d) thyrotrophin (TSH)
e) prolactin
25. Stridor following thyroidectomy may be caused by:
a) recurrent laryngeal nerve damage
b) wound haematoma
c) thyroid storm
d) hypocalcaemia
e) tracheomalacia
26. An acute intracranial extradural haematoma occurs usually:
a) after a lucid interval
b) in association with contralateral pupillary dilatation
c) in the elderly
d) in association with a skull fracture
e) as a result of arterial bleeding
27. A size E cylinder of nitrous oxide:
a) contains the equivalent of 1800 litres of gas (at STP) when full
b) has a pressure of 137 Bar at 20 degrees C when full
c) may develop frost on the outside during normal use
d) is coloured blue, with blue and white quartered shoulders
e) contains more liquid than gas when full
28. When using a circle system with absorber and a vaporiser outside the circle:
a) a fresh gas flow of at least 2/3 of the minute volume is required
b) the actual inspired vapour concentration during maintenance may be higher than the vaporiser setting
c) the actual inspired oxygen concentration may be lower than that of the fresh gas at low fresh gas flows
d) sevoflurane is a suitable agent to use
e) the system can only be used for patients breathing spontaneously
29. The intraocular pressure:
a) is normally less than 5 mmHg
b) is lowered by the administration of suxamethonium
c) increases with coughing
d) may be normal in closed-angle glaucoma
e) can be lowered by the use of acetazolamide
30. Tachycardia may be expected following administration of:
a) pancuronium
b) ketamine
c) edrophonium
d) gallamine
e) d-tubocurarine
31. Digoxin toxicity:
a) is potentiated by hypokalaemia
b) is an idiosyncracy of the drug
c) produces atrioventricular block
d) is less likely to occur in the elderly
e) is associated with vomiting
32. The following drugs are readily soluble in water:
a) propofol
b) midazolam
c) diazepam
d) ketamine
e) etomidate
33. The Hb-oxygen dissociation curve is shifted to the:
a) right by a raised arterial PCO2
b) right by a raised arterial pH
c) left by hypothermia
d) left in 14 day old stored blood
e) right if the P50 is increased
34. P waves are absent in:
a) atrial fibrillation
b) ventricular tachycardia
c) massive pulmonary embolism
d) first degree heart block
e) nodal rhythm
35. The pupil is dilated by the following being put into the conjunctival sac:
a) ephedrine
b) timolol
c) homatropine
d) cocaine
e) chloramphenicol
36. Nerve impulses:
a) are slower in large diameter nerve fibres than in small ones
b) are transmitted via electrical impulses
c) are stopped if the nerve is frozen
d) result from ionic movement across the membrane
e) cannot be transmifted during the absolute refractory period
37. Halothane:
a) is the only inhalational agent implicated in precipitating malignant hyperpyrexia
b) has a lower minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) than isoflurane
c) undergoes a greater degree of metabolism in the liver than does isoflurane
d) is a halogenated ether
e) sensitises the myocardium to the arrhythmogenic action of adrenaline, even at a concentration of 1 MAC
38. Reduced central venous pressure may be due to:
a) intermittent positive pressure ventilation
b) constrictive pericarditis
c) increased venous capacitance
d) tricuspid incompetence
e) reduced myocardial contractility
39. A tall R wave in lead V1 is typically present with:
a) left bundle branch block
b) right ventricular hypertrophy
c) inferior myocardial infarction
d) mitral stenosis
e) hyperkalaemia
40. Lymph:
a) contains no cells
b) contains less protein than plasma
c) circulates at a rate of 1 litre per day
d) clots on standing
e) carries important enzymes
ANSWERS
1. FTFTT
2. TFTFT
3. TTTFT
4. FFFFT
5. TFTTF
6. TFTFT
7. FFTTF
8. TFFFT
9. TFFFT
10. FTFFT
11. FTTTF
12. FFFTF
13. TTTTT
14. FTFTT
15. FFFTF
16. FFTFT
17. TTTFF
18. TFTTF
19. FFTFT
20. FFTTT
21. TTFTF
22. TFFFT
23. FFTTF
24. TFFTT
25. TTFTT
26. TFFTT
27. TFTFT
28. FFTFF
29. FFTTT
30. TTFTF
31. TFTFT
32. FTFTF
33. TFTTT
34. TFFFT (the presence of dissociated p waves is part of the diagnostic pathway in VT)
35. TFTTF
36. FTTTT
37. FTTFT
38. FFTFF
39. FTFFF
40. FTFTT
ArticleDate:20050706
SiteSection: Article
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